Gardiner and Hoolgate Auctions; VAT Q.

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GassageGassage Frets: 30916
G and H charge 20% VAT on sale price + 4% commission on auctioned items.

I thought, and I may be very wrong, that VAT on 2nd hand goods was paid only on the profit margain?

Can anyone like @guitars4you advise what's the correct practice?

*An Official Foo-Approved guitarist since Sept 2023.

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Comments

  • According to their website,

    "11. The Premium

    The Buyer shall pay to the Auctioneer a premium of 20% of the hammer price together with VAT on such premium."

    ... in other words you pay VAT on the premium, not on the lot itself, which is standard for auctions.
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  • gavin_axecastergavin_axecaster Frets: 526
    edited September 2018 tFB Trader
    Gassage said:


    I thought, and I may be very wrong, that VAT on 2nd hand goods was paid only on the profit margain?


    That has nothing to do with VAT charged on a sale - it's a VAT scheme (margin scheme) so a trader only pays VAT on the profit between purchase and sale prices. I believe the VAT rate charged to buyers is still 20% or whatever standard rate applies to the goods.
    EDIT: actually it appears that you must not specify a VAT % on a sale when using the margin scheme.
    https://www.gov.uk/vat-margin-schemes/keeping-records

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  • guitars4youguitars4you Frets: 14245
    tFB Trader
    The vat is charged on the 20% handling fee that G&H charge at the point of sale - So £1000 hammer price, £200 commission therefore vat on £200 is £40 - Total payable is £1240 - I've never sold a guitar via G&H but I know they charge a handling fee to the owner/seller of the guitar, which I believe is 20% again - As such the buyer pays 20% + vat and the seller is also charged 20% plus vat - But the vat is only charged on G&H's commission - Yet as it is part of the margin scheme a vat business can not claim it back

    Slightly different in a shop as @gavin_axecaster ; comments above - if I trade a used guitar in at £1000, sell it for £1500  Hence £500 profit - Then the vat office require a cut on the £500 -  in this case £83.34 is the vat that the dealer pays, so my margin is reduced to £416.66 - This vat is not reclaimable to even a vat registered business as it is part of what is called 'the margin scheme' - On the margin scheme it is the dealer that pays the vat

    Hope that makes sense
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  • blobbblobb Frets: 2951
    Stuckfast said:
    According to their website,

    "11. The Premium

    The Buyer shall pay to the Auctioneer a premium of 20% of the hammer price together with VAT on such premium."

    ... in other words you pay VAT on the premium, not on the lot itself, which is standard for auctions.
    They also say:

    All hammer prices subject to buyers premium of 20% + VAT (24% total)

    ... which kind of sets out a standard measure for all sales of 24%. Based on the £1000 example this works out, less cost they win, higher cost they lose out. This is not in their terms and conditions, so not binding, but I could see why they might want to make it a straight 24% total. Makes things easier for potential bidders to see the total outlay.


    Feelin' Reelin' & Squeelin'
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  • blobb said:
    They also say:

    All hammer prices subject to buyers premium of 20% + VAT (24% total)

    ... which kind of sets out a standard measure for all sales of 24%. Based on the £1000 example this works out, less cost they win, higher cost they lose out. This is not in their terms and conditions, so not binding, but I could see why they might want to make it a straight 24% total. Makes things easier for potential bidders to see the total outlay.


    Don't understand the bit I've put in bold and underlined.  Surely they are taking 20% of whatever the items sells for (plus another 20% from the seller). If it's a high or low cost item, don't they still take 20% buyer's premium... so high cost items result in more £s for the auctioneer (but same percentage).
    Similarly, the total is always 24%.
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  • guitars4youguitars4you Frets: 14245
    tFB Trader
    blobb said:
    They also say:

    All hammer prices subject to buyers premium of 20% + VAT (24% total)

    ... which kind of sets out a standard measure for all sales of 24%. Based on the £1000 example this works out, less cost they win, higher cost they lose out. This is not in their terms and conditions, so not binding, but I could see why they might want to make it a straight 24% total. Makes things easier for potential bidders to see the total outlay.


    Don't understand the bit I've put in bold and underlined.  Surely they are taking 20% of whatever the items sells for (plus another 20% from the seller). If it's a high or low cost item, don't they still take 20% buyer's premium... so high cost items result in more £s for the auctioneer (but same percentage).
    Similarly, the total is always 24%.
    correct - they add 20% to the hammer price regardless of that coming down at £100 or a £1000 - so £20 + vat (£24 total) or £200 + vat (240 total)

    In simple terms just add a 1/4 to the bidding price - do that in your head as you go along and you know what you are bidding at in 'true terms' - So if bidding is approaching £1600, expect to pay an additional £400 - simple rule with out nailing down to the nth degree
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  • blobbblobb Frets: 2951
    er yes sorry my dodgy maths at work there. It's 20% of 20% every time = 24%
    Feelin' Reelin' & Squeelin'
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  • SnagsSnags Frets: 5370
    Coo, is that normal for auctions, that the house takes a fee from both buyer and seller?

    An ignoramus writes.
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  • guitars4youguitars4you Frets: 14245
    tFB Trader
    Snags said:
    Coo, is that normal for auctions, that the house takes a fee from both buyer and seller?

    An ignoramus writes.
    yes - the % might vary but the principle is the same
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